OBGYN – Obstetrics and Gynecology – is one of the more difficult exams, with some years coming in at a 74% pass rate. It’s also a specialty with a variety of great study resources. To help you prepare, we’ve compiled 2 questions from the BoardVitals OBGYN Question Bank. Tailored for candidates preparing for the OBGYN board exam, these practice questions serve as a focused tool to enhance your readiness and ensure a comprehensive understanding of key concepts.
Sample OBGYN Board Questions
Question 1
A 28 year old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 39 weeks of gestation is undergoing a trial of labor after cesarean delivery. Her first child was a breech delivery infant weighing 3,750 g at 37 weeks of gestation, and the operative report confirms that she had a low transverse incision. This labor was spontaneous and has progressed normally. During this trial of labor, the most common sign of uterine rupture is:
- A. Tachysystole
- B. Vaginal bleeding
- C. Worsening fetal heart rate pattern
- D. Loss of fetal station
- E. New onset severe abdominal pain
Correct Answer:
C. Worsening fetal heart rate pattern.
Data show that a TOLAC (trial of labor after previous cesarean delivery) that results in a successful vaginal birth is associated with fewer complications than a planned repeat cesarean delivery. Failed TOLAC, however, has a higher rate of serious complications than does elective repeat cesarean delivery. Successful vaginal birth after cesarean delivery can be predicted with modest accuracy based on specific maternal clinical factors. A mathematical prediction model suggests that morbidity for TOLAC is at or below that of planned repeat cesarean delivery when the probability of successful vaginal birth after cesarean delivery reaches 60-70%. Patients in this category who undergo TOLAC can be reassured that their risks are at least no greater than a repeat cesarean delivery. Of reported TOLAC complications, the most severe is uterine rupture.
Incorrect Answers:
- A. Tachysystole would not be the most common, although it may be one of the signs.
- B. Vaginal bleeding may also be a sign, but it is not the most common sign.
- D. Also one of the signs, but not the most common sign.
- E. New onset pain may also be a sign, but again, not the most common sign.
Reference: Vaginal birth after cesarean delivery. Practice Bulletin No. 115. American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists. Obstet Gynecol 2010;116:450-63.
Question 2
A 58-year-old woman has been treated for several months for chronic candidiasis despite negative vaginal culture results. Your partner performed a vulvar biopsy 2 weeks ago that showed lichen sclerosus. The patient has intense vulvar pruritis and moderate dyspareunia (numeric rating scale pain score, 4 out of 10). On examination, you find the presence of significant adhesions at the clitoris that were not previously documented. Your next step in the treatment of this patient should be:
- A. Topical clobetasol propionate
- B. Lysis of the clitoral adhesions
- C. Triamcinolone hexacetonide injection
- D. Repeat biopsy
- E. Pimecrolimus cream
Correct Answer:
A. Topical clobetasol propionate.
Lichen sclerosus is a benign, chronic skin condition that causes symptoms of pruritis and pain. Most cases of lichen sclerosus occur in the anogenital region. Consensus is lacking on the treatment, but most experts recommend patient education, good vulvar hygiene, and superpotent corticosteroid therapy (such as topical clobestasol propionate) to control symptoms and preserve anatomy.
Incorrect Answers:
- B. This is not the proper management and will not help control symptoms.
- C. Injectables are not first line of treatment.
- D. Not necessary because the diagnosis has been established.
- E. Not as well-studied as clobetasol and have more side effects and risks.
Reference: Funaro D. Lichen sclerosus: a review and practical approach. Dermatol Ther 2004;17:28-37.
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